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NEW QUESTION: 1
A technical analyst with Bullfighter.com, a noted investment research firm, has been examining the U.S.
securities markets, and believes that the market is technically "overbought." Which of the following technical indicators would this analyst likely use to support his opinion? Choose the best answer.
A. All of these choices indicate an "overbought" condition.
B. The Block Uptick-Downtick Ratio has advanced beyond 1.1.
C. The CBOE Put/Call Ratio has declined to 0.50.
D. The Block Uptick-Downtick Ratio has declined below 0.70.
E. The Diffusion Index has increased significantly.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Block Uptick-Downtick Ratio is used by technical analysts to gauge institutional investment activity by measuring the percentage of block trades which result in an uptick versus the block trades which are executed on a downtick. The idea behind this ratio is the belief that a block buyer would initiate an "uptick", or a bid up in the securities' price, and a block seller would initiate a "downtick," or a bid down in the securities' price. Technical analysts view a decline in the Block Uptick-Downtick Ratio below 0.70 as an indication of an oversold condition, and an increase in the Block Uptick-Downtick Ratio above 1.10 as indicative of an overbought condition.
The "Diffusion Index" is a measure of market breadth, and is defined as [(# of advancing issues + 1/2 # of issues unchanged) / # of issues traded]. An increase in the diffusion index is indicative of an increase in advancing issues relative to declining issues. The CBOE Put/Call Ratio is a contrarian technical indicator used to gauge the sentiment of investment professionals, and a ratio greater than 50% is viewed by contrarian technical analysts as overtly bullish. Finally, contrarian technical analysts would view a large increase in the amount of futures traders who express bullish sentiment on stock index futures as a bearish signal.
The % of issues trading below their 200-day moving average is frequently cited by technical analysts as a measure of oversold and overbought market conditions. Specifically, technical analysts see the market as
"overbought" when 80% of issues are trading above their 200-day moving average, and consider a market
"oversold" when 80% of issues are trading under their 200-day moving average.
NEW QUESTION: 2
What is the objective of IT Service Management?
A. to provide services to the maximum level to the business
B. to provide guaranteed service levels against business requirements
C. to provide management of services to meet business requirements
D. to provide critical services to business customers
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Incorrect. The customer services will be more than critical services.
B. Incorrect. The services are not guaranteed, the service is simply being provided.
C. Correct. The focus for IT Service Management needs to be on agreed business requirements.
D. Incorrect. The customers may not require "maximum" levels.
NEW QUESTION: 3
"Tag along rights" are Buy-Sell agreements which:
A. Have become more common these days
B. Often call for the sales of interest on the same terms if the controlling owner sells
C. Allow the issuer first priority to buy the interest and other stockholders or partners the second-place option to buy
D. Both A & B
Answer: D
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Feedbacks
Aalk - 2014-05-05 16:45:18
Plato - 2014-05-05 16:45:51
I successfully passed the CGFM exam, now I intend to apply for CGFM, you can be relatively cheaper?Or can you give me some information about CGFM exam?
Eleanore - 2014-09-28 16:36:48