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  • Exam Number/Code : C-THR92-2411
  • Exam Name : SAP Certified Associate - Implementation Consultant - SAP SuccessFactors People Analytics: Reporting
  • Questions and Answers : 260 Q&As
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Welche der folgenden Aktivitäten ist die wichtigste, die eine Organisation ausführt, um sicherzustellen, dass Sicherheit Teil der gesamten Unternehmenskultur ist?
A. Stellen Sie sicher, dass allen Mitarbeitern Sicherheitsrichtlinien ausgestellt werden.
B. Arbeiten Sie mit der Geschäftsleitung zusammen, um die Geschäftsziele zu erreichen.
C. Verwalten Sie ein Programm für Sicherheitsüberprüfungen.
D. Führen Sie formelle Überprüfungen von Sicherheitsvorfällen durch.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://techbeacon.com/security/6-ways-develop-security-culture-top-bottom

NEW QUESTION: 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Answer:
Explanation:



NEW QUESTION: 3
If A and B be two debt securities, which of the following is true?
A. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is not dependent upon their default correlations, but on their marginal probabilities of default
B. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is 0
C. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is negative
D. The probability of simultaneous default of A and B is greatest when their default correlation is +1
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
If the marginal probability of default of two securities A and B is P(A) and P(B), then the probability of both of them defaulting together is affected by the default correlation between them. Marginal probability of default means the probability of default of each security on a standalone basis, ie, the probability of default of one security without considering the other security.
The relationship that expresses the probability of joint default of the two is given by the following expression:

It is easy to see that in a situation where the Default Correlation of A & B = 0, ie, the defaults are independent, the combined probability of default is P(A)*P(B), exactly what we would intuitively expect. Also in the other extreme case where the default correlation is equal to 1 and P(A) = P(B) = p, ie the securities behave in an identical way, the expression resolves to just p, which is what we would expect.
From the above relationship, it is clear that the probability of joint default of A and B is the greatest when default correlation between the two is equal to 1, ie the securities behave in an identical way. Therefore Choice
'a' is the correct answer.

 

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