Salesforce-Contact-Center Fragenkatalog - Salesforce Salesforce-Contact-Center Trainingsunterlagen, Salesforce-Contact-Center Kostenlos Downloden - Cads-Group

  • Exam Number/Code : Salesforce-Contact-Center
  • Exam Name : Salesforce Contact Center Accredited Professional
  • Questions and Answers : 260 Q&As
  • Price: $ 99.00 $ 39.00

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Salesforce-Contact-Center Prüfungsressourcen: Salesforce Contact Center Accredited Professional & Salesforce-Contact-Center Reale Fragen

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Hilfsreiche Prüfungsunterlagen verwirklicht Ihren Wunsch nach der Zertifikat der Salesforce Contact Center Accredited Professional

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NEW QUESTION: 1
What are two differences between dynamic clusters and static clusters? (Choose two.)
A. Using the autonomic request flow manager (ARFM) in manual mode will not affect dynamic cluster mode.
B. The application placement controller can start and stop a dynamic cluster that is in automatic mode only.
C. When creating a static cluster using an application server template, any changes made to the template after creating the instances do not change the instances.
D. Dynamic Workload Management is enabled by default in dynamic clusters.
E. Using static clusters in an Intelligent Management enabled environment will acquire some of a dynamic cluster features.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A: The dynamic workload manager is enabled by default and assigns weights to the application server instances.
E: When you define a static cluster, you can select an application server template on which to base all the application server instances that you create. However, any changes that you make to the template after creating the instances do not change the instances.

NEW QUESTION: 2
An IS auditor finds that, in accordance with IS policy, IDs of terminated users are deactivated within 90 days of termination. The IS auditor should:
A. verify that user access rights have been granted on a need-to-have basis.
B. report that the control is operating effectively since deactivation happens within the time frame stated in the IS policy.
C. recommend that activity logs of terminated users be reviewed on a regular basis.
D. recommend changes to the IS policy to ensure deactivation of user IDs upon termination.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Although a policy provides a reference for performing IS audit assignments, an IS auditor needs to review the adequacy and the appropriateness of the policy. If, in the opinion of the auditor, the time frame defined for deactivation is inappropriate,the auditor needs to communicate this to management and recommend changes to the policy. Though the deactivation happens as stated in the policy, it cannot be concluded that the control is effective. Best practice would require that the ID of a terminated user be deactivated immediately. Verifying that user access rights have been granted on a need-to-have basis is necessary when permissions are granted. Recommending that activity logs of terminated users be reviewed on a regular basis is a good practice, but not as effective as deactivation upon termination.

NEW QUESTION: 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You establish a Remote Desktop session to Server1.
You need to identify which task can be performed on Server1 from within the Remote Desktop session.
What should you identify?
A. Join a domain by using the System Properties.
B. Disable services by using Msconfig.
C. Install a feature by using Server Manager.
D. Modify the network settings by using Sconfig.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
In Windows Server 2012 R2, you can use the Server Configuration tool (Sconfig.cmd) to configure and manage several common aspects of Server Core installations. You must be a member of the Administrators group to use the tool. Sconfig.cmd is available in the Minimal Server Interface and in Server with a GUI mode.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj647766.aspx
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter 2: Deploying servers, p. 80.

NEW QUESTION: 4




A. Option C
B. Option B
C. Option A
D. Option D
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Understanding Passive OS Fingerprinting
Passive OS fingerprinting lets the sensor determine the OS that hosts are running. The sensor analyzes network
traffic between hosts and stores the OS of these hosts with their IP addresses. The sensor inspects TCP SYN
and SYNACK packets exchanged on the network to determine the OS type.
The sensor then uses the OS of the target host OS to determine the relevance of the attack to the victim by
computing the attack relevance rating component of the risk rating. Based on the relevance of the attack, the
sensor may alter the risk rating of the alert for the attack and/or the sensor may filter the alert for the attack.
You can then use the risk rating to reduce the number of false positive alerts (a benefit in IDS mode) or
definitively drop suspicious packets (a benefit in IPS mode). Passive OS fingerprinting also enhances the alert
output by reporting the victim OS, the source of the OS identification, and the relevance to the victim OS in
the alert.
Passive OS fingerprinting consists of three components:
*Passive OS learning
Passive OS learning occurs as the sensor observes traffic on the network. Based on the characteristics of TCP
SYN and SYNACK packets, the sensor makes a determination of the OS running on the host of the source IP
address.
*User-configurable OS identification
You can configure OS host mappings, which take precedence over learned OS mappings.
*Computation of attack relevance rating and risk rating.

 

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